DBT BET JRF Exam 2012-13 Previous Year Question Paper With Answer Key and Explanations Part 2

What are microsatellites?

DNA samples from specimens of Littorina plena amplified using PCR with primers targeting a variable simple sequence repeat (SSR, a.k.a. microsatellite) locus, run on a 5% polyacrylamide gel, visualized by silver staining (source wikipedia)

Biotechnology Eligibility Test (BET) for DBT JRF Award (2012-13)
Previous Year Question Papers with Answer Key, Explanations & References
Government of India, Ministry of Science & Technology
Department of Biotechnology, New Delhi

PART: A Set 2 (Questions 26 – 50)

26.  Which one of the following is the natural host for pseudo-rabies virus?

a.      Dog
b.      Man
c.       Swine
d.      Horse

Ans. (c). Swine

Pseudorabies (Aujeszky’s disease) is a viral disease of swine caused by Suid herpesvirus 1 (SuHV1) belongs to the family Herpesviridae. Other species such as sheep, cattle, and human are also susceptible to SuHV1. This disease is nothing to do with rabies virus. The notorious Rabies virus belongs to the family Rhabdoviridae which cause rabies in human and animals.

27.  Which one of the following is the causative agent of fowl cholera?

a.       V. cholera
b.       P. multocida
c.       E. coli
d.       S. pullorum

Ans. (b). P. multicida

Fowl cholera or avian cholera is caused by Pasteurella multocida. Fowl cholera is considered as Zoonoses

Zoonoses: an infectious disease of animals that can be transferred to human, Example: Rabies

S. pullorum is a poultry adapted species of Salmonella

28.  The wavelengths of light that penetrate the least into the ocean are

a.       Red and violet
b.      Red and yellow
c.       Blue and brown
d.      Green and blue

Ans. (b). Red and Yellow

Yellow, orange and red waves have the least energy in the visible spectrum, thus they cannot penetrated deep into the sea. This is the reason why most of the deep sea animals (fishes) are red in colour. In the deep sea, due to absence of enough light the red colour appears as black so that these animals can be escaped from their predators.

29.  Zooplankton that spend only a portion of their lives as plankton are called:

a.       Holoplankton
b.      Meroplankton
c.       Benthoplankton
d.      Hemiplankton

Ans. (b). Meroplankton

Meroplanktons spend only a portion of their life cycle as plankton and it is usually in their larval stages, example: urchins, sea stars, crustaceans

Holoplankton: true planktons, spend the entire life span as planktons. They may be phytoplanktons or zooplanktons. Usually they occupies at the pelagic zone of sea.

Pelagic zone: zone neither near to the bottom nor near to the shore

Benthoplanktons: planktons which lives in the benthic zones

Benthic zone: near the sea bed, Benthos = animals living near the sea bed

Hemiplankton: planktons spend most of the time in the bottoms of the water and occasionally come out to in some seasons.

30.  Most of the sand and mud dwelling benthic organisms are

a.       Grazers
b.      Producers
c.       Detritus feeders
d.      Predators

Ans. (c). Detritus feeders

Detritus feeders: heterotrophic saprophytes obtain their nutrients and energy from dead and decaying organic matter.

31.  The oceanic depth that represents equilibrium between oxygen and carbon dioxide production is termed the __________ depth

a.       Equilibrium
b.      Compensation
c.       Decomposition
d.      Anaerobic

Ans. (b). Compensation

Compensation point: period (or space) at which the rate of photosynthesis is equal to rate of respiration.

32.  Which of the following is NOT an adaptation of salt-water fish to the environment in which they live having a higher salinity than their bodies?

a.       They constantly drink seawater
b.      They excrete salt through their gills
c.       They produce a small amount of urine
d.      They store salt in their skin

Ans. (d). They store salt in their skin

33.  Cα-Cα distance plant might be useful in

a.       Identifying secondary structure in proteins
b.      Identifying globular domains in a protein
c.       Identifying active sites in enzymes
d.      For docking of inhibitors on protein’s surface

Ans. (b). Identifying globular domains in a protein

34.  A coin is tossed three times, what is the probability that exactly one head turns up

a.       0.333
b.      0.25
c.       0.50
d.      0.375

Ans. (d). 0.375

35.  WebIn is a sequence submission tool provided by

a.       NCBI
b.      EMBL
c.       EBI
d.      RCSB

Ans. (b). EMBL

EMBL: European Molecular Biology Laboratory, an inter-governmental organization supported by 21 member states, established in 1974. (url: www.embl.org)

WebIn: a sequence submission service by EMBL (url: https://www.ebi.ac.uk/ena/submit/sra/#home)

36.  National Center for Biotechnology Information (NCBI) was established on November 4, 1988 as a division of the:

a.       National Library of Medicine (NLM)
b.      National Institutes of Health (NIH)
c.       European Bioinformatics Institute
d.      ExPASy

Ans. (a). National Library of Medicine (NLM)

37.  The parts of proteins having the highest flexibility are:

a.      α-helices
b.      β-sheets
c.       Peptide bond
d.      Surface side chains

Ans. (d). Surface side chains

Flexibility in increasing order: peptide bond < α-helices < β-sheets < surface side chains

38.  In a typical E. coli fermentation, the major barrier to the transport of oxygen from gas bubbles to the cells in the broth is in the

a.       Gas film
b.      Liquid film
c.       Interphase between gas and liquid film
d.      Diffusion of oxygen at the cell surface

Ans. (b). Liquid film

39.  Identify the method from the following that is not used for KLa determination

a.       Pulse and shift method
b.      Dynamic method of gassing out
c.       Static method of gassing out
d.      Overall gas balancing method

Ans. (a). Pulse and shift method:

KLa: Oxygen transfer coefficient

40.  In a chemostat operated at steady state following Monod growth kinetics, the inlet substrate feed concentration is doubled at time t = 0, then in the new steady state concentration of biomass (X) and residual substrate (S) in a chemostat will be such that

a.       S is higher, X does not change
b.      X is higher, S does not change
c.       Both X and S are higher
d.      Both X and S remain the same

Ans. (b). X is higher, S does not change

41.  The film heat transfer coefficient (h) for cooling water flowing in the cooling tubes of a bioreactor will ______________ as the water flow rate is doubled

a.       Double
b.      Not change
c.       Decline
d.      Increase less than two fold

Ans. (d). Increase less than two fold

42.  For water following in a circular pipe, the flow rate increased so that it goes from laminar to turbulent flow then the ratio of the velocity at the centre line to velocity near the wall will

a.       Increase
b.      Decrease
c.       Remain unchanged
d.      Be unpredictable

Ans. (b). Decrease

43.  Liquid is being pumped using a centrifugal pump, if the outlet value is suddenly closed then,

a.       The outlet pipe would burst
b.      The outlet pressure would increase
c.       The pump would stop running
d.      The outlet pressure would remain the same

Ans. (b). The outlet pressure would increase

44.  When terminal velocity is reached, the net downward force due to gravity, on the objects is

a.       Greater than the upward buoyancy force and drag force
b.      Lesser than the upward buoyancy force and drag force
c.       Not related directly to upward buoyancy force and drag force
d.      Exactly balanced by the upward buoyancy force and drag force

Ans. (d). Exactly balanced by the upward buoyancy force and drag force

45.  A chemostat is run with a feed rate of 1 liter/h when the volume of the reactor is also 1 liter. At steady state the doubling time of the cells in the chemostat is _______h

a.       In  2
b.      Log 2
c.       One
d.      Two

Ans. (a). In 2

46.  Which one of the following promoters is not derived from Agrobacterium?

a.      CaMV 35S
b.      nos
c.       ipt
d.      virD

Ans. (a). CamV 35S

CamV35S is a viral promoter, derived from Cauliflower mosaic virus (CaMV). CaMV promoter (35S RNA) is a strong constitutive promoter and is responsible for the transmission of whole genome in the plant to induce mosaic. CaMV promoter is usually used in the transformation research of plants. CaMV promoter shoes high level expression in dicot plants than monocots.

47.  Which of the following is incorrect with respect to modification of Mendelian dihyrbid ratio?

a.      Complementary gene interaction: 9:7
b.      Recessive epistasis: 9:3:4
c.       Dominant epistasis: 12:3:1
d.      Addictive gene interaction: 10:6

Ans. (d). Addictive gene interaction

Addictive gene interaction: the phenotype is produced by the addictive (cumulative) action of more than two genes. It is also called quantitative interaction. The phenotypic and genotypic ratio varies depending upon the number of genes involved in a particular addictive character.

48.  An example of a co-dominant marker is

a.      AFLP marker
b.      ISSR marker
c.       RAPD marker
d.      SSR marker

Ans. (d). SSR Marker

Co-dominant markers: markers where both the alleles are expressed when they are co-occurring in an individual. The advantage of codominat marker is that heterozygotes can be determined from the homozygous populations. The opposite of co-dominant markers is dominant/recessive markers. Co-dominant markers are more informative than dominant/recessive markers. AFLP, ISSR, RAPD are dominant markers. SSR is a co-dominant marker.

SSR marker: Single Sequence Repeat, also called as microsatellite marker

Micro-satellite marker: region of DNA were few nucleotides (2 – 5) are repeated for about 5 – 50 times. Microsatellites are abundantly distributed in human genome and they show high variation among population. Microsatellites and mini-satellites are together called as VNTR (variable number of tandem repeats). Microsatellites are abundantly used in forensic analysis.

49.  A mapping method for identifying markers linked to trait of our interest in a natural population is

a.      Linkage mapping
b.      Association mapping
c.       Transcriptome mapping
d.      Physical mapping

Ans. (b). Association mapping

Association mapping is more commonly used for mapping Quantitative Trait Loci (QTL)

Linkage mapping: used for mapping gene position and order in a chromosome.

50.  The number of phenotypes in the F2 of the dihybrid will be

a.       2
b.      3
c.       4
d.      8

Ans. (c). 4

Number of genotypes of dihybrid cross: 16 in the ratio of 9:3:3:1

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